DBA Deepak Dubey: AIBE XX AIBE 20 Set C Question and answer set 2025 LLB LAW

1. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement:

According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, the approprime Government credits 15,000 to the Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund for each child adolescent for whom the fine amount from the employer has been deposited. The amount in the Fund deposited or invested in banks, and the interest accrued is also payable to the child or adolescent.

Conclusions:

The child or adolescent is entitled not only to the credited amount but also to the interest accrued on it.

Π. The Government is not required to deposit any money other than what is collected as fines from the employer.

In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Only Conclusion I follows.

(B) Only Conclusion II follows

(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

2. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, prescribes the death penalty for certain forms o gang rape

Reason (R): The purpose of this provision is to make all sexual offences non-bailable.

In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

3. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if the proclaimed person appea within the time specified in the proclamation, the Court shall release the attached property.

Reason (R): The attachment of property under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is intenc to compel the appearance of the proclaimed person before the Court, not to permanently deprive him his property.

In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

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Share only answer

child

4 Read the given Statements and choose the cont

A dispute acies bemeen two companies regarding the enforce the following statements

Statement 1: An arbitration agreement must be in writing, and it can be contained scorin exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, or electronic communications

Statement 2: An arbitration agreement may be implied solely from the conduct of the parties, wh any written record.

(A) Only Statement I is true.

(B) Only Statement 2 is true

(D) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is true

5 In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, 1 and 11.

Statement:

According to the Advocates Act, 1961, when the term of a State Bar Council expires without an election the Bar Council of India shall constitute a Special Committee consisting of the ex officio member of the State Bar Council as Chairman and two nominated members. The Special Committee has the power to discharge all functions of the State Bar Council until the new Council is constituted, and elections must be held within six months unless the period is extended by the Bar Council of India.

Conclusions:

The Special Committee is empowered to handle pending disciplinary matters of the State Bar Council.

The Bar Council of India may extend the six-month period for holding elections to the State Bar Council, for recorded reasons.

In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Only Conclusion I follows

(B) Only Conclusion II follows.

(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

6. Read the given statements and choose the correct option.

Statement 1: Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, a deduction equal to 30% of the annual value is al while computing income from house property.

Statement 2: Where the property has been acquired or constructed with borrowed capital, the mau deduction for interest payable on such capital is capped at 2,00,000, subject to conditions.

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false

(B) Only Statement 1 is true

(D) Both the Statements are true

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7. Given below are two statements, one labelled av Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A): Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a daughter in a Joint Hindu Family governed Mitakshara Law

becomes a coparcener by birth in her own right, just like a son. Reason (R): This provision grants daughters the same rights, liabilities, and disabilities in coparcen property as those of sons.

In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which one of t following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

As per the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. What is the leg effect if an offeree's response to a proposal introduces a new term ?

(A) It becomes a valid acceptance, and the new term is incorporated as a mere suggestion.

(B) It operates as a valid acceptance if the new term is not a material alteration.

(D) It suspends the original proposal until the new term is accepted or rejected by the proposer.

9. The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for specific situations where an agreement without considerato is not void. Which of the following agreements is valid despite the lack of fresh consideration?

(A) An oral promise by 'A' to pay 'B' 5000 for a service 'B' voluntarily rendered to 'A' last mong

(B) A written and registered promise by a husband, out of natural love and affection, to transfer property to his wife.

(D) A promise made by a minor upon attaining majority to pay a debt incurred during his minority.

10. In the context of delegated legislation, the judicial doctrine that prevents a legislature from confer "uncontrolled legislative power" on the administration is known as the doctrine of:

(A) Ultra Vires

(B) Excessive Delegation

(D) Separation of Powers

11. For a petition for nullity of marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, on the ground that co was obtained by fraud, what is a statutory bar to granting the decree ?

(A) The petition was filed more than six months after the discovery of the fraud.

(B) The petitioner has lived with the respondent as husband and wife after the discovery of the f

(D) The parties have not attempted reconciliation through a counselling center.

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12. In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitration proceedings are said to have commenced under Section 21 of The Arbitration sed Conciliation Act, 1996

(A) on the date of appointment of arbitrator

(B) on the date the arbitration agreement is signed.

(D) on the date the arbitral tribunal issues notice.

13. Which of the following public interest litigations expanded Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to include right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air 7

(A) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, (1991) 1 SCC 598

(B) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, (1993) 2 SCC 746

(D) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation, (1985) 3 SCC 545

14. Which Public Interest Litigation case resulted in the Supreme Court of India laying down the principle of Absolute Liability'?

(A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086

(B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1988 SCR (2) 530,

(D) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734

15. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has pointed out that the rule of nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the doctrine of necessity?

(A) Sahni Silk Mills (P) Ltd. v. Employees' State Insurance Corporation, (1994) 5 SCC 346

(B) In Re: Delhi Laws Act, AIR 1951 SC 332

(D) Union of India v. G. Ganayutham, (1997) 7 SCC 463

16. As per Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for Res Judicata to be applicable on a subsequent. suit, the former suit

17. has been finally decided.

II. can only be instituted prior to the subsequent suit.

III. relates to the same matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit.

IV. is between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim

Select the correct answer.

(A) I, II and III

(B) II, III and IV

(D) I, II, III and IV

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Where the decree is for the payment of money, cacumen bry dention in prison shall unless after giving the judgment-debtor an opportunity of aperto the Court is satisfied I local limins of the jurisdiction of the C

judgment-debtor, is likely to abscond or leave the 11 judgment-debtor has, before the institution of the ut in which the decree was passed, d transferred any part of his property

I decree is for a sum for which the judgment-debtor was bound in a fiduciary capacity to IV judgment-debtor bas, or has had since the date of the decree, the means to pay substantial

of the decree and neglected to pay the same

Select the correct answer

(A) I, II and III

(B) II, III and IV

(D) 1, II, III and IV

18. As per The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a decree ex parte can be set aside against a defendanı

19. if he satisfies the Court that the summons was not duly served.

II. if he satisfies the Court that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the was called on for hearing

III. if he satisfies the Court that there has been an irregularity in the service of summons despiu fact that defendant had notice of the date of hearing and had sufficient time to appear and an the plaintiff's claim.

IV without notice being served on the opposite party.

Select the correct answer.

(A) I and II

(B) 1, II and III

(D) 1, II, III and IV

19. When is a confession made by a person in police custody admissible under the Bharatiya Adhiniyam, 2023?

(A) Only if it is made voluntarily in writing

(B) Only if it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.

(D) Only if it is recorded after the charge sheet is filed

20. Which Section of The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to opinions of experts?

(A) Section 38

(B) Section 39

(D) Section 46

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Which of the lowing carrera per The harsis Sakshi Allwn.20237 ( A) Astracte in writing with the delivery of indigo upon certainem The contract me

the fact that had paid the price of other graced for vertushunc Onal evidence is office that payment was made further dig. The evidendile (11) A agrees butele in writing to pay one thousand rupees 1st March, 2023 The fact that af March 2023

the same time, and was made that the money should be paid till 31 can be proved (C) A enters into a wrinen contract with to work certain mines, the property of upon certain term A was induced to do so try & misrepresentation of as to their value. This fact may be proved

DA orders goods from by a letter in which nothing is said as to the time of payment, and accepts the goods on delivery. Burs A for the price. A may show that the goods wer for a term still unexpired. were supplied on credit

22. As per The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, two persons are said to be within the "degrees of prohibited relationship" if

One is a lineal ascendant of the other, including relationship by adoption.

one was the wife or husband of a lineal ascendant or descendant of the other, including relationsh by half or uterine blood as well as by full blood. of the grandfather's

III. one was the wife of the brother of of the father's or mother's brother or grandmother's brother of the other

IV. the two are brother and sister, uncle and niece, aunt and nephew, or children of brother and sis or of two brothers or of two sisters.

Select the correct answer.

(A) I, III and IV

(B) III and IV

(D) I, II, III and IV

23. Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down the fundamental duty of every citizen to prote improve the natural environment?

(A) Article 48A

(B) Article 39A

(D) Article 51A(h).

24. The grounds for decree for dissolution of marriage under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muln Marriages Act, 1939 are that the

25. whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of two years.

26. husband has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of five years.

III. husband has failed to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obliganions for a period of years

IV. husband has neglected or has failed to provide for maintenance of his wife for a period of one yea

Select the correct answer.

(A) III and IV

(B) I and II

(D) None of these

25. As per The Information Technology Act, 2000, "intermediary", with respect to any particular electrone records, means any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits that recond or provides any service with respect to that record and includes

telecom service providers.

search engines.

III. cyber cafes

IV. online-auction sites.

Select the correct answer

(A) I and IV

(B) I and II

(D) I, II, III and IV

26. Under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following orders is a appealable?

(A) Refusing to refer parties to arbitration under Section 8.

(B) Refusing to appoint arbitrator under Section 11.

(D) Refusing to grant an interim measure under Section 17.

27. Under Section 9A of The Advocates Act, 1961, a legal aid comunittee constituted by a Bar Council shal consist of

(A) Not exceeding thirteen but not less than nine members.

(B) Not exceeding eleven but not less than seven members.

(D) Not exceeding seven but not less than three members.

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28. Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India?

(A) Section 35

(B) Section 36.

(D) Section 38

29. Match List 1 (General Defences in Tort) with List II (Leading Cases) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I

1. Act of God

ii. Consent (Volenti non fit injuria)

iii. Statutory Authority

iv. Necessity

Codes:

(A) 1-1;-2; -3; iv-4

(B) 1-2; 3; 4; -1

(D) 1-4; -1; -3; iv-2

List 11

1. Vaughan v Tuff Vale Rail Co. (1850) 5 H & N 679

2. Kirk v Gregory (1876) 1 Ex. D. 55

3. Nichols v. Marsland (1876) 2. Ex. D. 1

4. Hall v. Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933) 1 KB 205

5. The Central Consumer Protection Council, as provided under Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, shall consist of:

(A) a Chairperson and ten other members, or a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed.

(B) a Chairperson and five other members.

(D) a Chairperson and ten other members

31. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India held that, the Preamble is not part of the Constitution?

(A) In re: The Kerala Education Bill, 1957, AIR 1958 SC-956

(B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461

(D) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789

32. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements?

(A) Article 249

(B) Article 251

(D) Article 255

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which of the following judgment's was the issue of right to privacy dealt with by the Supreme Co

of India? 1. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (AIR 1963 SC 1295)

II. PUCL v. Union of India (AIR 1997 SC 568)

III. Justice K.S. Purtaswamy (Retd.) & Ant. v. Union of India & Ors. (2017) 10 SCC 1

IV. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (AIR 1954 SC 300)

(A) II, III and IV

(B) II and III

(D) I, II, III and IV

34. Which of the following actions is required if territory is ceded to any other country by the Union India?

(A) Executive action of the Union of India

(B) Presidential proclamation, exercising constitutional power while issuing proclamation

(C) Executive action of the Union of India, and then legislative enactment by the Parliament (D) Legislative enactment by the Parliament, and then executive action of the Union of India

35. The President has referred a question to the Supreme Court and the Supreme Court, as per Article 143 the Constitution of India, has advised the President accordingly

Can the advice given by the Supreme Court be considered as 'judicial precedent'?

(A) No, because it is not considered as a judgment

(B) Yes, because it is considered as a judgment

(D) Yes, because it is pronounced in open court

36. In a criminal trial of defamation, the trial court, Le., the High Court, has restrained publication of ay news on the given case. Which of the following constitutional powers has been exercised by the High Court while passing given order?

(A) Power to issue the writ of mandamus

(B) Power to issue the writ of prohibition

(D) Residuary power

37. The Supreme Court of India has declared that 'Right to Information' is a fundamental right of every citizen of India. Which of the following stated provisions is used as source of the fundamental right gives

by the Supreme Court? (A) Article 19(1)(b), Constitution of India

(B) Right to Information Act, 2005

(D) Article 19(1), Constitution of India and Right to Information Act, 2005, collectively

38. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India deals with the subject matter of "Validation

of certain Acts & Regulations?

(A) Schedule IX

(B) Schedule II

(D) Schedule X

39. Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Constitution of India:

L The Article is silent about the locus standi about who may approach the Supreme Court

IL The Article is silent about the opposite party against whom the relief under Article 12 may be granted.

III. The Article creates room for even a sixth type of writ within its scope,

Select the correct answer.

(A) Lis false.

(B) Il is false.

(D) All Statements are true.

40. By virtue of Articles 129 and 215, the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts in the States are courts of record and possess contempt Jurisdiction. What is true about the lower Judiciary in the same connection?

(A) Lower Judiciary has to bear with its contempt.

(B) Lower Judiciary has to comp

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what happens if the principal del leave part of the dump and there are two or more co-surutios 7

(A) The creditor alone bears the unpaid portion of the debt

(B) The debtor's family becomes liable for the unpaid amount

(D) The entire unpaid portion is to be paid by the surety first approached

Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, when can a defendam in possession of movable property compelled to deliver it to the plaintiff ?

(A) When the property is held as agent or trustee of the plaimiff

(B) When the property is held as mortgaged asset of the plaintiff

(D) When the property is held as co-owner in common with the plaintiff

Read the following statements and choose the correct option

Statement 1: Under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, a Joint Administrative Tribunal for two or more States exercises the same jurisdiction, powers, and authority as an Administrative Tribunal for those

States. Statement 2: For the purposes of contempt, a Tribunal exercises powers similar to those of a High Court

and references to "High Court" in the Contempt of Courts Act. 1971 are construed to include such Tribunals

In the context of the above statements under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false

(B) Only Statement I is true

(D) Both the Statements are true

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): A Money Bill can be introduced only in the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and not in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)

Reason (R): The Council of States may only make recommendations on a Money Bill within 14 days but the House of the People may accept or reject them, and in either case, the Bill is deemed to be passed In the context of the above assertion and reason under Article 109 of the Constitution of India, which on of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

47. A company, registered under The Companies Act, 2013, is required to file a declaration of commencement of business before starting operations. The directors ignore this obligation, and the firm commences business activities without filing the declaration. How much penalty can be imposed on the company by the Registrar concerned for such non-compliance?

(A) 25,000

(B) 50,000

(D) 1,00,000

48. If multiple offences carry different punishments but it is unclear which one has been committed, how does Section 72 of the Indian Penal Code ensure proportional justice ?

(A) By imposing punishment for the offence with the lowest prescribed term

(B) By applying punishment equal to the average of all possible offences

(D) By suspending the punishment until further clarification is made

49. Mr. Xowns a bakery where he employs Y, a 16-year-old adolescent. At first, X gives V every Sunday off as his weekly holiday. After two months, X decides to change the weekly holiday to Wednesday and pastes a notice about this change on the bakery wall. According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, this change is

(A) valid, since employers can change the holidays anytime by giving notice.

(B) invalid, since weekly holidays cannot be altered before completion of at least three months

(D) invalid, only if the notice is not displayed in the establishment

50. Which person will nor be treated as a consumer under the definition of the Consumer Protection Act, 20197

(A) A person who purchases a refrigeratot on instalments for home use.

(B) A person who buys a television, partly paid and partly promised, for family use.

(D) A person who uses furniture bought by a relative with the latter's consenm

51. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remission of punishment, or to suspend, remut, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial or where the sentence is death

Reason (R): This power under Article 72 overrides and completely nullifies the powers of the Governm to commute or remit a death sentence under State law,

In the context of the above assertion and reason under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, which of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

52. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and

Statement:

Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a Magistrate may order to prevent the respondent from commiming arts of domestic velence, contacting the person, alienating assets er stridhat without permission, or causing harm to her dependen

Conclusions:

L. A protection order can cover mis just physical violence but also financial and etiol domestic violence

11. The Magistrate has wide powers to restrict the respondent's conduct to safeguard the person and her dependents

In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Protection of Women from D Violence Act, 2005, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Only Coechesion 1 followe

(B) Only Conchsion II follows

(D) Neither Conclusion I nor 11 follows

According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, which factor determines the jurisdiction of the licen authonry in applying for a driving license?

(A) The place where the applicant has family ancestral property

(B) The place where the applicant has held a bank account for more than a year,

(D) The place where the applicant ordinarily resides or carves on business.

54. If a convict sentenced to life imprisonment is being considered for remission fractions under Section 57 of the Indian Penal Code, which equivalent term of years is applied by the court?

(A) Ten years of imprisonment

(B) Twenty years of imprisonment

(D) Fifty years of imprisonment

55. According to the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, under what circumstance is the completion of five years of continuous service not mandatory for payment of gratuity to an employee by his employer?

(A) Voluntary resignation from the post try the employee

(B) Dismissal of the employee due to misconduct at work.

(D) Transfer of the employee to another department within the same organization

56. If a bailiff executes an eviction based on a civil court order later declared void for lack of jurisdiction, what protection does Section 78 of the Indian Penal Code provide?

(A) The bailiff is punishable as the order was invalid from the beginning

(B) The bailiff can be punished only with a reduced penalty

pects of

(C)The bailiff is exempt if he acted in good faith under the order

(D) The bailiff is required to compensate the evicted person

meved

57. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum number of consecutive days an offender may be kept in solitary confinement at a time?

mestic

(A) Seven

(B) Ten

(D) Twenty-one

sing

58. According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what is the fixed amount of compensation, payable in the event of death caused by a motor vehicle accident under no-fault liability?

(A) Twenty-five thousand rupees

(B) Fifty thousand rupees

(D) Seventy-five thousand rupees

59. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A): An employee can be deemed to be in continuous service for one year only if he has worked for 365 days in the preceding twelve months, without any interruption.

Reason (R): Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, continuous service may also include periods of interruption due to sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike, or lock-out not caused by the employee's fault.

In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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60. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement 1: Under the Indian Penal Code, if a person harbours an offender who has escaped custody for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years, he shall be punished with imprisonment to 7 years.

Statement 2: The law provides an exception for harbouring or concealing by the husband or wife of the offender

In the context of the above statements under the Indian Penal Code, which one of the following in correct?

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false

(B) Only Statement i is true

(D) Both the Statements are true

61. If a person attempts an offence punishable with a maximum of 10 years imprisonment, what is the maximum years of imprisonment that can be imposed under Section 62 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 20237

(A) Five years

(B) Seven years

(D) Three years

62. A juvenile aged 14 years is brought before the court for an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, will the case primarily fall?

(A) Section 27

(B) Section 125

(D) Section 482

63. Under Section 290(1) of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, within how many days from the date of framing of charge can an accused file an application for plea bargaining?

(A) 15

(B) 30

(D) 60

64. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if a person is ordered to pay a fine of 4,000 but fails to do so, what is the maximum simple imprisonment the court may impose on the defaulter?

(A) One year

(B) Two months

(D) Six months

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65. According to Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagank Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the minimum period of practice as an advocate, required to be considered eligible for appointment as a Public Prosecutor or Additional Public Prosecutor?

(A) 3 years

(B) 5 years

(D) 10 years

66. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when can facts that are otherwise irrelevant be considered relevant?

(A) Only when they prove the guilt of the accused directly

(B) Only when they form part of a dying declaration

(D) When they are part of an admission made in writing

67. What condition must be satisfied for prior evidence to be relevant under Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 18727

(A) The evidence must have heen recorded in the presence of a jury

(B) The proceeding was between the same parties or their representatives in interest.

(D) The evidence must have been corroborated by expert opinion.

68. During a court trial, the defence lawyer objects to the admissthelity of certain papers produced as evidence. The judge clarifies that only documents categorized as public documents under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, can be accepted without strict proof. Which category of documents would fall under public documents in this context ?

(A) Draft agreements between individuals

(B) Personal diaries of government officials

(D) Judicial and executive acts of public officers

69. Which condition must be satisfied for things said or done by one conspirator to be admissible against others under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023

(A) The statement must be made after the conspiracy has ended

(B) The statement must involve unrelated matters of personal benefit

(D) There must be proof that each conspirator personally committed the act

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17 70. As per Section 10 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, if a Magistrate sentenced person to w imprisonment and a fine, what is the maximum imprisonment he may impove in deteak of per the fine?

(A) 1 year

(B) 2 years

(D) 3 months

71. As per the Constitution of India, after the 86th Constitutional Amendment, which directive principle modified to ensure early childhood care and education below the age of six?

(A) Article 39

(B) Article 41

(D) Article 45

72. According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, who can direct the Court that passed the decree security when an execution order is challenged in appeal"

(A) Only the High Court exercising writ jurisdiction

(B) The Appellate Court hearing the appeal

(D) The Police Authority of the concerned jurisdiction

73. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, how many High Court Judges constitute the judic membership of the Rule Committee?

(A) Three Judges of the High Court

(B) Two Judges of the High Court

(D) Five Judges of the High Court

74. According to The Copyright Act, 1957, what is ordinarily the maximum punishment for copyrigh infringement under Section 63 2

(A) Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to two lakh rupees

(B) Imprisonment up to two years and fine up to one lakh rupees

(D) Imprisonment up to seven years and fine up to five lakh rupees

75. As per the Constitution of India, a linguistic community in India seeks to preserve its unique script and literature. Which constitutional provision guarantees them the right to conserve the same?

(A) Article 28(1)

(B) Article 29(1)

English [Set Code-C)

(D) Article 32

76. Under Section 58 of the Code of Civil Procedurt, 1908, what is the maximum period of detention in civil prison for a decree amount exceeding 5,000?

(A) Six weeks

(B) Two months

(D) Six months

77. Which of the following situation falls wathm Section 58(1)(b) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

(A) Decree for 1,800, detention up to three months

(B) Decree for 3,500, detention up to six weeks

(D) Decree for 10,000, detention up to one year

78. A civil suit is filed against Ajay, and the court issues summons requiring him to appear. After receiving the summons, Ajay consults his lawyer to understand the umeline for filing his written statement of defence under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Within how many days from the date of service of summons must he submit his written statement ?

(A) Thirty days

(B) Fifteen days

(D) Ninety days

79. How long does the registered address furnished under Section 14A(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, remam valid if not changed?

(A) Six years after final determination of the cause

(B) Three years after the institution of the suit

(C)Two years after final determination of the cause

(D) Five years from the date of deeree

80. According to Section 25(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, what happens if the claimant fails to submit his statement of claim without sufficient cause ?

(A) The tribunal adjourns the case indefinitely

(B) The tribunal imposes a penalty but continues proceedings

(D) The tribunal terminates the proceedings

81. If a case is transmitted to the Central Government under Section 10 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the time limit for solemnizing the marriage after its decision?

(A) One month

(B) Two months

(D) Three months

82. What is the maximun term of unprnonment prescribed under Section 31 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 for breach of protection order?

(A) Six months

(B) One year

(D) Thuee years

13. Under which provision of the Indian Constitution can a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) be filed directly in the Supreme Court?

(A) Article 21

(11) Article 32

(Di Article 14

84. Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, what is the minimus period that must clapse herwoen the publication of notice and the appearance of persons interested before the Collector

(A) Not less than 7 days

(B) Not less than 60 days

(D) Not less than 30 days

85. Under which provision can a citizen file a public case in the Court of Magistrate regarding issues of public interest?

(A) Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code

(B) Section 144 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

(D) Section 482 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

86. According to Section 44AA(2)(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, a person carrying on business must maintain books of account if income from business or profession exceeds

(A) 1,20,000

(B) 50,000

(D) 10,00,000

87. Under the Patents Act, 1970, which situation prevents a patent application from being published even after the expiry of the prescribed period ?

(A) When the applicant has filed a request for early examination.

(B) When secrecy direction is imposed under Section 35.

(D) When the applicant has requested for an extension of time

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88. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Any person having an interest in a newspaper declared forfeited, may apply to the High Court to set aside the declaration within two months of its publication in the Official Game

Reason (R): The Special Bench of the High Court to hear such applications must always coment of exactly three judges, regardless of the strength of that High Court

In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

89. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement 1: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, admissions are generally relevant and may be proved against the person making them, but cannot ordinarily be proved by or on behalf of that person

Statement 2: An admission can still be proved on behalf of the person making it if it relates to the existence of a state of mind or body, made at or about the time when such condition existed, and is supported by conduct showing its truthfulness

In the context of the above statements under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false

(B) Only Statement I is true

(D) Bath the Statements are truc

90. Which type of allowance qualifies for deduction under Section 16(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 19617

(A) House Rent Allowance granted by private companies

(B) Entertainment Allowance granted to government employées

(D) Leave Travel Allowance given for domestic travel

1. Read the given statements and choose the correct option.

Statement 1: Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a negotiable instrument made, drawn, accepted, or transferred without consideration creates no obligation of payment between the parties to the transaction.

Statement 2: According to the same Act, if the consideration for which a negotiable instrument was issued fails in part, the holder in immediate relation is entitled to recover only the proportionate amount corresponding to the consideration actually received.

In the context of the above statements under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which one of the

following is correct?

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false

(B) Only Statement 1 is true

(D) Both the Statements are true

nglish [Set Code-C)

Page 21 of 24

92. In the following question, a statement is followed by twa Conclusions, I and II.

Statement:

Under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, when an offence is committed by a company, every peri who was directly in charge of and responsible to the company at the time of the offence, as well as the company itself, is dermed guilty. However, a person may escape liability if he proves that the office was committed without his knowledge er that he exercised dur diligence to prevent it

Conclusions:

L A company as well as its responsible officers may be held liable for environmental offences undey the Act.

11. An officer of a comparry can never escape hability once the company is found guilty of an offimce In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 which one of the following is correct?

(A) Only Conclusion 1 follows

(B) Only Conclusion II follows

(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

93. Under Section 24(a) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, what percentage of the annual value of an income from house property is allowed as a standard deduction 7

(A) 20

(B) 40

(D) 50

94. After a government notification is issued for acquiring Mr. Mehta's farmland under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, he notices that the income from his crops steadily decreases until the authormes finally take possession. He approaches the court claiming compensation for this reduction in profits. According w the Act, what type of loss is compensable in such a case ?

(A) Loss due to falling land prices in the market

(B) Loss due to cancellation of tenant agreements

(D) Bona fide diminution of profits due to acquisition process

95. According to Section 35A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, what is the maximum amount a Coun can award as compensatory costs in ordinary cases?

(A) ₹2,000

(B) 10,000

(D) 3,000-

96. According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, when is the communication of an acceptance complete against the proposer?

(A) When the acceptor prepares the letter of acceptance

(B) When it is dispatched beyond the control of the acceptor

(D) When the proposer acknowledges receipt in his records

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97. Rahul rents a shop in the city for running his retail business. Later, the landlord decides to terminate the lease. Since the lease is for purposes other than agriculture of manufacturing and there is no special contract between the parties, the landlord wonders hirw many days' notice he must legally give under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, to end the lease. What is the required notice period?

(A) Five days' notice

(B) Fifteen days' notice

(D) Sixty days' notice

98. According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, what is the maximum sentence of imprisonment that a Magistrate may pass in a summary trial under Section 1437

(A) Six months imprisonment

(B) Two years" imprisonment

(D) Three years imprisonment

99. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, 1 and 11.

Statement:

As per Section 157 of the Companies Act, 2013 every company must, within fifteen days of receiving intimation under Section 156, furnish the Director Identification Number (DIN) of all its Directors to the Registrar with prescribed fees. Failure to comply attracts penalties:

Conclusions:

L If a company fails to furnish the DIN, it can be penalized.

11. Every officer of the company in default is also liable for penalties

In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Only Conclusion I follows

(B) Only Conclusion II follows

(D) Neither Conclusion I nar II follows

100. Read the following Statements related to the Information Technology Act, 2000 and choose the correct option

Statement 1: Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, a Digital Signature Certificate may be suspended by the Certifying Authority on the request of the subscriber, an authorized representative, de if it is considered necessary in the public interest.

Statement 2: Under the same Act, a Digital Signature Certificate can remain suspended indefinitely without providing the subscriber an opportunity of being heard

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false

(B) Only Statement I is true

(D) Both the Statements are true

English (Set Code-C)

Page 23 of 24

Here is the consolidated answer key (1 to 100) for your Set-C:

✅ AIBE / Law Exam – Set C (Answers 1–100)

1. A

2. C

3. A

4. A

5. C

6. D

7. A

8. C

9. B

10. B

11. B

12. C

13. A

14. A

15. C

16. C

17. C

18. A

19. B

20. D

21. D

22. D

23. C

24. C

25. D

26. A

27. C

28. B

29. C

30. C

31. C

32. C

33. D

34. D

35. A

36. C

37. C

38. A

39. D

40. D

41. C

42. C

43. C

44. A

45. B

46. A

47. B

48. A

49. B

50. C

51. C

52. C

53. D

54. B

55. C

56. C

57. A

58. C

59. D

60. C

61. A

62. A

63. B

64. D

65. C

66. C

67. B

68. D

69. C

70. C

71. D

72. B

73. B

74. A

75. B

76. D

77. C

78. A

79. C

80. D

81. D

82. C

83. B

84. C

85. C

86. A

87. B

88. C

89. D

90. B

91. D

92. A

93. C

94. D

95. A

96. B

97. B

98. A

99. C

100. B

DBA Deepak Dubey

Sunday, November 30, 2025

AIBE XX AIBE 20 Set C Question and answer set 2025 LLB LAW

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