1. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement:
According to the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, the approprime Government credits 15,000 to the Child and Adolescent Labour Rehabilitation Fund for each child adolescent for whom the fine amount from the employer has been deposited. The amount in the Fund deposited or invested in banks, and the interest accrued is also payable to the child or adolescent.
Conclusions:
The child or adolescent is entitled not only to the credited amount but also to the interest accrued on it.
Π. The Government is not required to deposit any money other than what is collected as fines from the employer.
In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Only Conclusion I follows.
(B) Only Conclusion II follows
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
2. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, prescribes the death penalty for certain forms o gang rape
Reason (R): The purpose of this provision is to make all sexual offences non-bailable.
In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
3. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, if the proclaimed person appea within the time specified in the proclamation, the Court shall release the attached property.
Reason (R): The attachment of property under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is intenc to compel the appearance of the proclaimed person before the Court, not to permanently deprive him his property.
In the context of the above assertion and reason, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
sh (Set Code-C)
Page 2 of 24
Share only answer
child
4 Read the given Statements and choose the cont
A dispute acies bemeen two companies regarding the enforce the following statements
Statement 1: An arbitration agreement must be in writing, and it can be contained scorin exchange of letters, telex, telegrams, or electronic communications
Statement 2: An arbitration agreement may be implied solely from the conduct of the parties, wh any written record.
(A) Only Statement I is true.
(B) Only Statement 2 is true
(C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true
(D) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is true
5 In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, 1 and 11.
Statement:
According to the Advocates Act, 1961, when the term of a State Bar Council expires without an election the Bar Council of India shall constitute a Special Committee consisting of the ex officio member of the State Bar Council as Chairman and two nominated members. The Special Committee has the power to discharge all functions of the State Bar Council until the new Council is constituted, and elections must be held within six months unless the period is extended by the Bar Council of India.
Conclusions:
The Special Committee is empowered to handle pending disciplinary matters of the State Bar Council.
The Bar Council of India may extend the six-month period for holding elections to the State Bar Council, for recorded reasons.
In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Only Conclusion I follows
(B) Only Conclusion II follows.
(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
6. Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, a deduction equal to 30% of the annual value is al while computing income from house property.
Statement 2: Where the property has been acquired or constructed with borrowed capital, the mau deduction for interest payable on such capital is capped at 2,00,000, subject to conditions.
(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false
(B) Only Statement 1 is true
(C) Only Statement 2 is true
(D) Both the Statements are true
English [Set Code-C]
Page 3 of 24
7. Given below are two statements, one labelled av Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A): Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a daughter in a Joint Hindu Family governed Mitakshara Law
becomes a coparcener by birth in her own right, just like a son. Reason (R): This provision grants daughters the same rights, liabilities, and disabilities in coparcen property as those of sons.
In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which one of t following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
As per the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an acceptance must be absolute and unqualified. What is the leg effect if an offeree's response to a proposal introduces a new term ?
(A) It becomes a valid acceptance, and the new term is incorporated as a mere suggestion.
(B) It operates as a valid acceptance if the new term is not a material alteration.
(C) It constitutes a counter-proposal, thereby rejecting the original proposal.
(D) It suspends the original proposal until the new term is accepted or rejected by the proposer.
9. The Indian Contract Act, 1872, provides for specific situations where an agreement without considerato is not void. Which of the following agreements is valid despite the lack of fresh consideration?
(A) An oral promise by 'A' to pay 'B' 5000 for a service 'B' voluntarily rendered to 'A' last mong
(B) A written and registered promise by a husband, out of natural love and affection, to transfer property to his wife.
(C) A promise to subscribe 1 lakh to a public charitable fund.
(D) A promise made by a minor upon attaining majority to pay a debt incurred during his minority.
10. In the context of delegated legislation, the judicial doctrine that prevents a legislature from confer "uncontrolled legislative power" on the administration is known as the doctrine of:
(A) Ultra Vires
(C) Conditional Legislation
(B) Excessive Delegation
(D) Separation of Powers
11. For a petition for nullity of marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, on the ground that co was obtained by fraud, what is a statutory bar to granting the decree ?
(A) The petition was filed more than six months after the discovery of the fraud.
(B) The petitioner has lived with the respondent as husband and wife after the discovery of the f
(C) The fraud relates to the social status of the respondent's family..
(D) The parties have not attempted reconciliation through a counselling center.
English (Set Code-C)
Page 4 of 24
12. In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitration proceedings are said to have commenced under Section 21 of The Arbitration sed Conciliation Act, 1996
(A) on the date of appointment of arbitrator
(B) on the date the arbitration agreement is signed.
(C) on the date the request for reference is received by the respondent
(D) on the date the arbitral tribunal issues notice.
13. Which of the following public interest litigations expanded Article 21 of the Indian Constitution to include right to enjoyment of pollution-free water and air 7
(A) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, (1991) 1 SCC 598
(B) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, (1993) 2 SCC 746
(C) Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1986) 3 SCC 596
(D) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation, (1985) 3 SCC 545
14. Which Public Interest Litigation case resulted in the Supreme Court of India laying down the principle of Absolute Liability'?
(A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
(B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1988 SCR (2) 530,
(C) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388
(D) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734
15. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has pointed out that the rule of nemo judex in causa sua is subject to the doctrine of necessity?
(A) Sahni Silk Mills (P) Ltd. v. Employees' State Insurance Corporation, (1994) 5 SCC 346
(B) In Re: Delhi Laws Act, AIR 1951 SC 332
(C) J. Mohapatra & Co. v. State of Orissa, (1984) 4 SCC 103
(D) Union of India v. G. Ganayutham, (1997) 7 SCC 463
16. As per Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for Res Judicata to be applicable on a subsequent. suit, the former suit
17. has been finally decided.
II. can only be instituted prior to the subsequent suit.
III. relates to the same matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit.
IV. is between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim
Select the correct answer.
(A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
English [Set Code-C)
Page 5 of 24
Where the decree is for the payment of money, cacumen bry dention in prison shall unless after giving the judgment-debtor an opportunity of aperto the Court is satisfied I local limins of the jurisdiction of the C
judgment-debtor, is likely to abscond or leave the 11 judgment-debtor has, before the institution of the ut in which the decree was passed, d transferred any part of his property
I decree is for a sum for which the judgment-debtor was bound in a fiduciary capacity to IV judgment-debtor bas, or has had since the date of the decree, the means to pay substantial
of the decree and neglected to pay the same
Select the correct answer
(A) I, II and III
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) 1, II, III and IV
18. As per The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a decree ex parte can be set aside against a defendanı
19. if he satisfies the Court that the summons was not duly served.
II. if he satisfies the Court that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the was called on for hearing
III. if he satisfies the Court that there has been an irregularity in the service of summons despiu fact that defendant had notice of the date of hearing and had sufficient time to appear and an the plaintiff's claim.
IV without notice being served on the opposite party.
Select the correct answer.
(A) I and II
(B) 1, II and III
(C) Land IV
(D) 1, II, III and IV
19. When is a confession made by a person in police custody admissible under the Bharatiya Adhiniyam, 2023?
(A) Only if it is made voluntarily in writing
(B) Only if it is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate.
(C) Only if it is supported by two independent witnesses
(D) Only if it is recorded after the charge sheet is filed
20. Which Section of The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 pertains to opinions of experts?
(A) Section 38
(B) Section 39
(C) Section 36
(D) Section 46
English (Set Code-C)
Page 6 of
Which of the lowing carrera per The harsis Sakshi Allwn.20237 ( A) Astracte in writing with the delivery of indigo upon certainem The contract me
the fact that had paid the price of other graced for vertushunc Onal evidence is office that payment was made further dig. The evidendile (11) A agrees butele in writing to pay one thousand rupees 1st March, 2023 The fact that af March 2023
the same time, and was made that the money should be paid till 31 can be proved (C) A enters into a wrinen contract with to work certain mines, the property of upon certain term A was induced to do so try & misrepresentation of as to their value. This fact may be proved
DA orders goods from by a letter in which nothing is said as to the time of payment, and accepts the goods on delivery. Burs A for the price. A may show that the goods wer for a term still unexpired. were supplied on credit
22. As per The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, two persons are said to be within the "degrees of prohibited relationship" if
One is a lineal ascendant of the other, including relationship by adoption.
one was the wife or husband of a lineal ascendant or descendant of the other, including relationsh by half or uterine blood as well as by full blood. of the grandfather's
III. one was the wife of the brother of of the father's or mother's brother or grandmother's brother of the other
IV. the two are brother and sister, uncle and niece, aunt and nephew, or children of brother and sis or of two brothers or of two sisters.
Select the correct answer.
(A) I, III and IV
(B) III and IV
(C) II, III and IV.
(D) I, II, III and IV
23. Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down the fundamental duty of every citizen to prote improve the natural environment?
(A) Article 48A
(B) Article 39A
(C) Article 51A(g)
(D) Article 51A(h).
24. The grounds for decree for dissolution of marriage under Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muln Marriages Act, 1939 are that the
25. whereabouts of the husband have not been known for a period of two years.
26. husband has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of five years.
III. husband has failed to perform, without reasonable cause, his marital obliganions for a period of years
IV. husband has neglected or has failed to provide for maintenance of his wife for a period of one yea
Select the correct answer.
(A) III and IV
(B) I and II
(C) I, II, III and IV
(D) None of these
25. As per The Information Technology Act, 2000, "intermediary", with respect to any particular electrone records, means any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits that recond or provides any service with respect to that record and includes
telecom service providers.
search engines.
III. cyber cafes
IV. online-auction sites.
Select the correct answer
(A) I and IV
(B) I and II
(C) I, II and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
26. Under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which of the following orders is a appealable?
(A) Refusing to refer parties to arbitration under Section 8.
(B) Refusing to appoint arbitrator under Section 11.
(C) Refusing to grant any measure under Section 9.
(D) Refusing to grant an interim measure under Section 17.
27. Under Section 9A of The Advocates Act, 1961, a legal aid comunittee constituted by a Bar Council shal consist of
(A) Not exceeding thirteen but not less than nine members.
(B) Not exceeding eleven but not less than seven members.
(C) Not exceeding nine but not less than five members.
(D) Not exceeding seven but not less than three members.
English [Set Code-C)
Page 8 of 24
28. Which Section of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India?
(A) Section 35
(B) Section 36.
(C) Section 37
(D) Section 38
29. Match List 1 (General Defences in Tort) with List II (Leading Cases) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
1. Act of God
ii. Consent (Volenti non fit injuria)
iii. Statutory Authority
iv. Necessity
Codes:
(A) 1-1;-2; -3; iv-4
(B) 1-2; 3; 4; -1
(C) 1-3; 4; in-1; iv-2
(D) 1-4; -1; -3; iv-2
List 11
1. Vaughan v Tuff Vale Rail Co. (1850) 5 H & N 679
2. Kirk v Gregory (1876) 1 Ex. D. 55
3. Nichols v. Marsland (1876) 2. Ex. D. 1
4. Hall v. Brooklands Auto Racing Club (1933) 1 KB 205
5. The Central Consumer Protection Council, as provided under Section 3(2) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, shall consist of:
(A) a Chairperson and ten other members, or a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed.
(B) a Chairperson and five other members.
(C) a Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed.
(D) a Chairperson and ten other members
31. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India held that, the Preamble is not part of the Constitution?
(A) In re: The Kerala Education Bill, 1957, AIR 1958 SC-956
(B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461
(C) In re: The Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves, AIR 1960 SC 845
(D) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789
32. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements?
(A) Article 249
(C) Article 253.
(B) Article 251
(D) Article 255
English [Set Code-C)
Page 9 of 24
which of the following judgment's was the issue of right to privacy dealt with by the Supreme Co
of India? 1. Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors. (AIR 1963 SC 1295)
II. PUCL v. Union of India (AIR 1997 SC 568)
III. Justice K.S. Purtaswamy (Retd.) & Ant. v. Union of India & Ors. (2017) 10 SCC 1
IV. M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (AIR 1954 SC 300)
(A) II, III and IV
(B) II and III
(C) Only III
(D) I, II, III and IV
34. Which of the following actions is required if territory is ceded to any other country by the Union India?
(A) Executive action of the Union of India
(B) Presidential proclamation, exercising constitutional power while issuing proclamation
(C) Executive action of the Union of India, and then legislative enactment by the Parliament (D) Legislative enactment by the Parliament, and then executive action of the Union of India
35. The President has referred a question to the Supreme Court and the Supreme Court, as per Article 143 the Constitution of India, has advised the President accordingly
Can the advice given by the Supreme Court be considered as 'judicial precedent'?
(A) No, because it is not considered as a judgment
(B) Yes, because it is considered as a judgment
(C) No, because it is not pronounced in open court
(D) Yes, because it is pronounced in open court
36. In a criminal trial of defamation, the trial court, Le., the High Court, has restrained publication of ay news on the given case. Which of the following constitutional powers has been exercised by the High Court while passing given order?
(A) Power to issue the writ of mandamus
(B) Power to issue the writ of prohibition
(C) Inherent power
(D) Residuary power
37. The Supreme Court of India has declared that 'Right to Information' is a fundamental right of every citizen of India. Which of the following stated provisions is used as source of the fundamental right gives
by the Supreme Court? (A) Article 19(1)(b), Constitution of India
(B) Right to Information Act, 2005
(C) Article 19(1)(a), Constitution of India
(D) Article 19(1), Constitution of India and Right to Information Act, 2005, collectively
38. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India deals with the subject matter of "Validation
of certain Acts & Regulations?
(A) Schedule IX
(B) Schedule II
(C) Schedule V
(D) Schedule X
39. Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Constitution of India:
L The Article is silent about the locus standi about who may approach the Supreme Court
IL The Article is silent about the opposite party against whom the relief under Article 12 may be granted.
III. The Article creates room for even a sixth type of writ within its scope,
Select the correct answer.
(A) Lis false.
(B) Il is false.
(C) III is false.
(D) All Statements are true.
40. By virtue of Articles 129 and 215, the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts in the States are courts of record and possess contempt Jurisdiction. What is true about the lower Judiciary in the same connection?
(A) Lower Judiciary has to bear with its contempt.
(B) Lower Judiciary has to comp
No comments:
Post a Comment